Questions You Should Know about NPT-01 Needle Puncture Tester

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• 1. 

  Vacutainer System

  • A.

    Combination of Vacutainer holder, syringe, needle and sample tubes which allows for a more measured method of blood drawing

  • B.

    Combination of Vacutainer holder, needle and sample tubes which allows for a more automated method of drawing blood

  • C.

    Combination of Vacutainer tubes, needle and sample holder which allows for a more automated method of drawing blood

  • D.

    Combination of Vacutainer syringe, needle, holder and sample tubes which allows for a more automated method of drawing blood

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Combination of Vacutainer holder, needle and sample tubes which allows for a more automated method of drawing blood

  Explanation

  
  The Vacutainer System consists of a Vacutainer holder (also known as a Vacutainer adapter), a needle, and sample tubes. This system allows for a more automated method of drawing blood by using vacuum pressure to fill sample tubes with blood during venipuncture.

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• 2. 

  Vacutainer Needle

  • A.

    The needle used to attach to a Vacutainer Holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube, and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

  • B.

    The needle used to attach to a Vacutainer tube and holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube, and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

  • C.

    The needle used to attach to a Vacutainer syringe and tube. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube, and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to dray multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

  • D.

    The needle used to attach to a Vacutainer Syringe and Holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube, and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

  Correct Answer

  
  A. The needle used to attach to a Vacutainer Holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube, and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is the first option: "The needle used to attach to a Vacutainer Holder. The needle has a male thread on one end which screws into the holder. The holder, tube, and needle comprise the Vacutainer system, used to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture." This option accurately describes the purpose and function of a Vacutainer needle, which is to attach to a Vacutainer holder in order to draw multiple tubes of blood with one venipuncture. The other options either mention incorrect components (e.g. syringe and tube) or do not accurately describe the purpose of the Vacutainer system.

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• 3. 

  Universal precautions

  • A.

    Name used to describe a prevention strategy in which all blood and potentially infectious materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

  • B.

    Name used to describe a prevention strategy in which most blood and potential infectious Fomite materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

  • C.

    Name used to describe a protest strategy in which all blood and potentially infected animals and materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

  • D.

    Name used to describe a prevention log and procedure in which all blood and potentially infectious materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Name used to describe a prevention strategy in which all blood and potentially infectious materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Name used to describe a prevention strategy in which all blood and potentially infectious materials are treated as if they are, in fact, infectious, regardless of the perceived status of the source individual." This explanation accurately describes universal precautions as a prevention strategy that assumes all blood and potentially infectious materials are infectious, regardless of the source individual's perceived status. This approach helps to prevent the transmission of infections and ensures the safety of healthcare workers and others who may come into contact with these materials.

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• 4. 

  Under a patient's bill of rights, can a patient decline medical treatment?

  • A.

    No, they are ill

  • B.

    Yes and no, it depends on the illness

  • C.

    Most of the time

  • D.

    Yes, all the time

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Yes, all the time

  Explanation

  
  Yes, all the time. Under a patient's bill of rights, patients have the right to make decisions about their own medical treatment. This includes the right to refuse or decline medical treatment, even if they are ill. Patients have the autonomy to make decisions about their own bodies and healthcare, and this right is protected by laws and ethical principles. Therefore, patients can choose to decline medical treatment if they wish to do so.

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• 5. 

  Trauma

  • A.

    Injury of underlying tissue caused by probing of the needle

  • B.

    Injury that required immediate medical attention due to inaccurate needle draw

  • C.

    Injury that relates to tissue bruising due to inaccurate gauge of needle

  • D.

    None of the above

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Injury of underlying tissue caused by probing of the needle

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Injury of underlying tissue caused by probing of the needle." This choice explains that the trauma mentioned in the question is caused by the needle being probed into the underlying tissue. It suggests that the injury is a result of the needle's action, rather than any other factors such as inaccurate needle draw or gauge.

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• 6. 

  Tourniquet

  • A.

    Constrictive band used for venipuncture, blood aspiration and intravenous injections

  • B.

    Plastic band that easily breaks, mainly used for patients with blood disease

  • C.

    Nylon band used to make intravenous injections

  • D.

    Constrictive rubber tied in a knot used for patient's needing medical attention

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Constrictive band used for venipuncture, blood aspiration and intravenous injections

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Constrictive band used for venipuncture, blood aspiration and intravenous injections." This answer accurately describes the purpose and use of a tourniquet. It is a constrictive band that is applied to a limb to temporarily stop or slow down the flow of blood, making it easier to locate and access veins for procedures such as venipuncture, blood aspiration, and intravenous injections.

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• 7. 

  Tortuous veins are

  • A.

    Perfect for blood clotting, susceptible to infection

  • B.

    Impaired blood flow, susceptible for thin clot matter

  • C.

    Impaired blood flow, susceptible for infection

  • D.

    Impaired blood flow, susceptible for agitation

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Impaired blood flow, susceptible for infection

  Explanation

  
  Tortuous veins are characterized by twisted and winding paths, which can lead to impaired blood flow. This impaired blood flow can result in a stagnant environment, making the veins more susceptible to infection. When blood flow is compromised, it becomes easier for bacteria or other pathogens to accumulate and cause an infection. Therefore, impaired blood flow and susceptibility to infection are closely linked in tortuous veins.

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• 8. 

  Tort

  • A.

    Wrongful death of a patient

  • B.

    Wrongful procedure that interferes with working conditions and caused injury

  • C.

    Wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another

  • D.

    Wrongful dietary food that cause illness

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another." This option accurately defines a tort, which is a civil wrong that causes harm or injury to another individual. It refers to any intentional or negligent act that causes physical, emotional, or financial harm to someone else. The other options mentioned in the question do not accurately describe a tort and are unrelated to the concept of wrongful acts causing injury.

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• 9. 

  Thrombophlebitis

  • A.

    Inflammation of a vein with formation of a clot

  • B.

    Inflammation of a artery with the formation of fibrin and collagen

  • C.

    Inflammation of a capillary with the formation of a clot that moves

  • D.

    Inflammation of a vein with formation of a bruise

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Inflammation of a vein with formation of a clot

  Explanation

  
  Thrombophlebitis refers to the inflammation of a vein along with the formation of a clot. This condition occurs when a blood clot forms in a vein, usually in the legs. The inflammation of the vein can cause pain, redness, and swelling in the affected area. The clot can also obstruct blood flow, leading to further complications. Therefore, the correct answer is "inflammation of a vein with formation of a clot."

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• 10. 

  Thixotropic gel forms a

  • A.

    Wall between the Serum and the Cells

  • B.

    Path for the Serum and the Cells

  • C.

    Circle around the Serum and the Cells

  • D.

    Barrier between the Serum and the Cells

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Barrier between the Serum and the Cells

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Barrier between the Serum and the Cells." Thixotropic gel refers to a substance that becomes less viscous and flows more easily when it is agitated or subjected to stress. In this context, the thixotropic gel forms a barrier between the serum and the cells, preventing them from mixing or coming into direct contact with each other. This barrier helps to maintain the integrity and separate the two components, allowing for specific analysis or testing to be performed on the serum without interference from the cells.

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• 11. 

  The Sharps container is overflowing; what is the appropriate response?

  • A.

    This is not a job for a phlebotomist to determine how and when this needs to be emptied. Jeez!

  • B.

     Be sure you have the proper PEP equipment, open the lid, run with the open container to your break room and throw the container away in a regular waste can.

  • C.

    Wear appropriate PPE, close the lid, hand-carry to the nearest medical waste accumulated pickup container, be sure the container is lined with a RED biohazard bag. Fill out the Medical Waste Accumulated log. Remove your gloves and WASH YOUR HANDS!

  • D.

    Wear appropriate PPE, close the lid, hand-carry to the nearest medical waste accumulated pickup container, be sure the container is lined with a RED & BLACK biohazard bag. Fill out the Medical Waste Accumulated log. Remove your gloves and SPIT on YOUR HANDS!

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Wear appropriate PPE, close the lid, hand-carry to the nearest medical waste accumulated pickup container, be sure the container is lined with a RED biohazard bag. Fill out the Medical Waste Accumulated log. Remove your gloves and WASH YOUR HANDS!

  Explanation

  
  The appropriate response when the Sharps container is overflowing is to wear appropriate PPE, close the lid, hand-carry it to the nearest medical waste accumulated pickup container, ensuring that the container is lined with a RED biohazard bag. Then, fill out the Medical Waste Accumulated log, remove your gloves, and wash your hands.

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• 12. 

  Which of the following veins is commonly used for venipuncture in adults due to its accessibility and size?

  • A.

    Radial vein

  • B.

    Brachial vein

  • C.

    Femoral vein

  • D.

    Dorsal venous network

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Brachial vein

  Explanation

  
  The brachial vein is commonly used for venipuncture in adults due to its accessibility and size. It is located in the upper arm and is often selected for blood collection because of its relatively large diameter, which makes it easier to insert a needle and withdraw blood.

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• 13. 

  Sodium Fluoride keeps

  • A.

    Cellulite molecule in tact for 5 days

  • B.

    Cellulose molecule in tact for 4 days

  • C.

    Glycerine cell molecule in tact for 3 days

  • D.

    Glucose molecule in tact for 3 days

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Glucose molecule in tact for 3 days

  Explanation

  
  The given information states that Sodium Fluoride keeps different molecules intact for different periods of time. The Cellulite molecule remains intact for 5 days, the Cellulose molecule for 4 days, the Glycerine cell molecule for 3 days, and the Glucose molecule for 3 days. Therefore, the correct answer is that the Glucose molecule remains intact for 3 days when exposed to Sodium Fluoride.

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• 14. 

  Sodium Citrate is in what tube color?

  • A.

    Red

  • B.

    Lt. Blue

  • C.

    Green

  • D.

    Grey

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Lt. Blue

  Explanation

  
  Sodium citrate is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. The light blue tube is specifically designed for coagulation tests, as it contains sodium citrate as the anticoagulant. Sodium citrate prevents the blood from clotting by binding to calcium ions, thus allowing accurate testing of coagulation factors. Therefore, the correct tube color for sodium citrate is light blue.

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• 15. 

  Sodium Citrate

  • A.

    Sodium citrate is effective as an anticoagulant due to binding calcium in the specimen

  • B.

    Sodium citrate is effective as an anticoagulant due to not binding calcium properties in the specimen

  • C.

    Sodium citrate is good for salting foods because is binds calcium

  • D.

    Sodium citrate makes it easy for blood draws because it binds calcium in the blood before test

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Sodium citrate is effective as an anticoagulant due to binding calcium in the specimen

  Explanation

  
  Sodium citrate is effective as an anticoagulant because it binds to calcium in the specimen. This prevents the calcium from participating in the coagulation process, thereby preventing the blood from clotting. By binding to calcium, sodium citrate ensures that the blood remains in a liquid state, making it suitable for various laboratory tests and procedures that require non-clotted blood samples.

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• 16. 

  Silica (glass particles) are in what tube color?

  • A.

    Red

  • B.

    Lt. Blue

  • C.

    Lavender

  • D.

    Tiger top

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Tiger top

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is Tiger top because silica (glass particles) are commonly found in serum separator tubes, also known as tiger top tubes. These tubes have a gel barrier that separates the serum from the blood cells, allowing for easy and clean separation during centrifugation. The color of the tube top may vary, but tiger top tubes are often gold or red in color.

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• 17. 

  Serum

  • A.

    Referring to blood, the dark liquid portion of blood that separates out before clotting has taken place

  • B.

    Referring to blood, the clear liquid portion of blood that hinders separation so clotting may take place

  • C.

    Referring to blood, the clear liquid portion of blood that separates out after clotting has taken place

  • D.

    Referring to plasma, the clear liquid portion the separates blood from serum

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Referring to blood, the clear liquid portion of blood that separates out after clotting has taken place

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer states that serum is the clear liquid portion of blood that separates out after clotting has taken place. This means that when blood clots, the solid components like red blood cells and clotting factors settle at the bottom, leaving behind a clear liquid called serum. This is different from plasma, which is the clear liquid portion of blood that is obtained when blood is collected with an anticoagulant to prevent clotting.

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• 18. 

  Septicemia

  • A.

    Systemic infection associated with the presence of parasitic organisms introduced during a venipuncture

  • B.

    Systemic infection associated with the presence of antibody organisms introduced during a venipuncture

  • C.

    Systemic infection associated with the controlled presence of pathogens introduced during a venipuncture

  • D.

    Septicemia is a serious bloodstream infection. It's also known as bacteremia, or blood poisoning

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Septicemia is a serious bloodstream infection. It's also known as bacteremia, or blood poisoning

• 19. 

  Scleroses veins are

  • A.

    Hard and flexible

  • B.

    Hard and cord like

  • C.

    Soft and Sponge like

  • D.

    Spungie and hard like

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Hard and cord like

  Explanation

  
  Sclerosed veins are described as hard and cord-like. This means that the veins have become hardened and have a rope-like texture. This can occur due to various factors such as aging, inflammation, or damage to the blood vessels. The hardening of the veins can lead to symptoms such as pain, swelling, and a feeling of heaviness in the affected area. Treatment options for sclerosed veins may include lifestyle changes, compression stockings, or medical procedures to remove or close off the affected veins.

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• 20. 

  PTT is the abbreviation for:

  • A.

    Partial Therapeutic Time

  • B.

    Partial Thrombin Test

  • C.

    Partial Thromboplastin Time

  • D.

    Partial Participation Time

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Partial Thromboplastin Time

  Explanation

  
  PTT stands for Partial Thromboplastin Time, which is a laboratory test used to measure the time it takes for blood to clot. It is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of blood-thinning medication, such as heparin. The test measures the time it takes for a clot to form after certain substances are added to a blood sample. By measuring PTT, healthcare professionals can assess a patient's risk of excessive bleeding or blood clotting disorders.

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• 21. 

  PT is the abbreviation for:

  • A.

    Prothrombin Test

  • B.

    Proparticle Test

  • C.

    Protest Time

  • D.

    Prothrombin Time

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Prothrombin Time

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is Prothrombin Time. Prothrombin Time is a blood test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It is used to assess the effectiveness of blood thinning medications and to diagnose bleeding disorders. The abbreviation "PT" is commonly used in medical settings to refer to Prothrombin Time.

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• 22. 

  PT & PTT tests are drawn from what tube?

  • A.

    Green

  • B.

    Grey

  • C.

    Tiger top

  • D.

    Lt. Blue

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Lt. Blue

  Explanation

  
  The PT & PTT tests are drawn from a light blue tube. This specific type of tube is used to collect blood samples for coagulation tests, such as prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT). The light blue color of the tube indicates that it contains sodium citrate, an anticoagulant that prevents the blood from clotting. This allows for accurate testing of the blood's clotting ability and helps diagnose and monitor conditions related to blood clotting disorders.

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• 23. 

  Point-of-care  (POCT)

  • A.

    Diagnostic care given upon admittance into the ER

  • B.

    Diagnostic testing given after the patient went to the restroom

  • C.

    Diagnostic testing at or near the site of patient care

  • D.

    Diagnosis provided to patient at or near the site of bed

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Diagnostic testing at or near the site of patient care

  Explanation

  
  Point-of-care (POCT) refers to diagnostic testing that is performed at or near the location where the patient is receiving care. This can include testing that is done in the emergency room, in a clinic, or at the bedside in a hospital. The purpose of POCT is to provide rapid and accurate test results, allowing for immediate decision-making and treatment. It eliminates the need for sending samples to a laboratory and waiting for results to come back, which can delay diagnosis and treatment.

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• 24. 

  Platelets

  • A.

    Also known as thrombocyte, this is a particulate component of the blood, approximatley 2-4 microns in diameter and known for it's involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has no nucleus or DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone marrow.

  • B.

    Also known as thrombocyte tissue, this is a particulate component of the blood, approximatley 6-8 microns in diameter and known for it's inhibiting involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has several nucleus or DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone tissue.

  • C.

    Also known as thrombocyte, this is the one and only component of the blood, approximatley 2-4 microns in diameter and known for it's involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has one nucleus and DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone marrow.

  • D.

    Also known as thrombocyte, this is a particulate structure of the blood, approximatley 2-4 microns per cubic meter and known for it's involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has no nucleus or DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone marrow.

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Also known as thrombocyte, this is a particulate component of the blood, approximatley 2-4 microns in diameter and known for it's involvement in blood coagulation. This structure has no nucleus or DNA, is formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of the parent cell, known as megakaryocyte in the bone marrow.

  Explanation

  
  Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are small cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They are approximately 2-4 microns in diameter and do not have a nucleus or DNA. Platelets are formed by breaking off the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, which are found in the bone marrow. Their involvement in blood coagulation is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing.

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• 25. 

  Plasma

  • A.

    The fluid portion of the serum in which the cells are suspended. Plasma is different than serum.

  • B.

    The fluid liquid of the whole blood in which the cellular components are surpessed. Plasma is different than serum

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  • C.

    The fluid portion of the blood in which the cellular components are suspended. Plasma is different than serum.

  • D.

    The cellular components that are released for suspension in the fluid portion of the serum. Plasma is different than serum

  Correct Answer

  
  C. The fluid portion of the blood in which the cellular components are suspended. Plasma is different than serum.

  Explanation

  
  Plasma is the correct answer because it is the fluid portion of the blood in which the cellular components are suspended. It is different from serum, which is the fluid portion of the blood after it has clotted and the clotting factors have been removed.

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• 26. 

  Pink tube is used for

  • A.

    Cellular Blood Banking

  • B.

    Blood Banking

  • C.

    Blood Tubes Banking

  • D.

    Banking

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Blood Banking

  Explanation

  
  The pink tube is used for blood banking. Blood banking involves the collection, testing, processing, and storage of blood and blood components for transfusion. The pink tube is specifically used for collecting samples for blood banking purposes, such as cross-matching and antibody screening. This tube contains an anticoagulant called EDTA, which helps prevent the blood from clotting and allows for accurate testing and storage.

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• 27. 

  Phlebitis

  • A.

    Inflamation of a vein as a result of repeated venipuncture on that vein

  • B.

    Inflamation of an artery as a result of repeated stress on that vein

  • C.

    Inflamation of RBC's as a result of repeated venipunture on that arm

  • D.

    None of the above

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Inflamation of a vein as a result of repeated venipuncture on that vein

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Inflammation of a vein as a result of repeated venipuncture on that vein." Phlebitis refers to the inflammation of a vein, and it is commonly caused by repeated venipuncture, which is the puncture of a vein for the purpose of drawing blood or administering medication. This repeated trauma to the vein can lead to inflammation and subsequent phlebitis.

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• 28. 

  Petechiae

  • A.

    Tiny raised red spots that appear on the skin from ruptured RBC's due to strangulation because tourniquest being left on to long and or to tight.

  • B.

    Tiny non-raised red spots that appear on the skin from rupturing of the capillaries due to the tourniquet being left on to long and or to tight

  • C.

    Large non-raised red spots that appear on the epidemic. These may be caused by infection and the tourniquet being left on to long and or to tight

  • D.

    None of the above

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Tiny non-raised red spots that appear on the skin from rupturing of the capillaries due to the tourniquet being left on to long and or to tight

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer states that petechiae are tiny non-raised red spots that appear on the skin from rupturing of the capillaries due to the tourniquet being left on for too long and/or too tight. This explanation accurately describes the cause and appearance of petechiae, which are small pinpoint-sized hemorrhages caused by the bursting of tiny blood vessels. The tourniquet restricts blood flow, leading to the rupture of capillaries and the formation of petechiae.

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• 29. 

  Patient is being treated for cancer; what section of the hospital would they be in?

  • A.

    Serology

  • B.

    Oncology

  • C.

    Pediatrics

  • D.

    None of the above

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Oncology

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is Oncology. Oncology is the section of the hospital that specializes in the treatment of cancer. Patients who are being treated for cancer would typically be in the oncology department, where they would receive specialized care and treatment for their condition.

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• 30. 

  Pathogen

  • A.

    Any microoganism the produces germs

  • B.

    Any microoganism that products disinfectants

  • C.

    Any microoganism that produces basophils

  • D.

    Any microoganism that produces disease

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Any microoganism that produces disease

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "any microorganism that produces disease." A pathogen refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi, that can cause disease in a host organism. These pathogens have the ability to invade the host's body, multiply, and disrupt normal physiological functions, leading to illness or infection. It is important to understand pathogens and their mechanisms in order to develop effective treatments and preventive measures against diseases.

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• 31. 

  Oncology

  • A.

    Study and treatment of colitis

  • B.

    Study and treatment of cancer

  • C.

    Study and treatment of calcium poisioning

  • D.

    Study and treatment of contagious material

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Study and treatment of cancer

  Explanation

  
  Oncology is the study and treatment of cancer. It focuses on understanding the causes, development, diagnosis, and treatment of various types of cancer. Oncologists specialize in providing medical care to cancer patients, including chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgical interventions. They also conduct research to develop new treatments and improve existing ones.

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• 32. 

  NPO means

  • A.

    Next Priority

  • B.

    Nothing By Mouth

  • C.

    Fasting

  • D.

    Newborn

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Nothing By Mouth

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Nothing By Mouth" because NPO is a medical abbreviation used to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally. This is often done before a medical procedure or surgery to ensure that the patient's stomach is empty and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure.

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• 33. 

  Nosocomial

  • A.

    Healthcare setting acquired pendants

  • B.

    Healthcare setting acquired infection knowledge

  • C.

    Healthcare setting aquired intervenious infections

  • D.

    Healthcare setting acquired infections

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Healthcare setting acquired infections

  Explanation

  
  The term "nosocomial" refers to infections that are acquired in a healthcare setting. These infections can be acquired by patients, healthcare workers, or visitors in hospitals, clinics, or other healthcare facilities. The given answer, "Healthcare setting acquired infections," accurately describes this concept by combining the terms "healthcare setting" and "acquired infections." It encompasses the idea that infections can be acquired within a healthcare environment.

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• 34. 

  Negligence (four elements)

  • A.

    Duty of care, being proactive to a hazard, protecting the patient from falling so that no injury occurs.

  • B.

    Duty: of care, Derelict: breach of duty of care, Indirect cause: Legally recognizable injury that occurs as a result of the breach of duty of care.

  • C.

    Duty: of care, Derelict: breach of the duty of care, Direct cause: a Legally recognizable injury that occurs as a result of the breach of the duty of care. Damage: Wrongful activity must have caused injury because of another's failure to live up to a required duty of care.

  • D.

    None of the above.

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Duty: of care, Derelict: breach of the duty of care, Direct cause: a Legally recognizable injury that occurs as a result of the breach of the duty of care. Damage: Wrongful activity must have caused injury because of another's failure to live up to a required duty of care.

  Explanation

  
  This outlines the four elements of negligence:
  Duty of care: The legal obligation to adhere to a standard of reasonable care to prevent harm.
  Derelict (Breach of Duty): Failure to fulfill the duty of care, indicating a breach.
  Direct Cause: A legally recognizable injury occurs as a direct result of the breach.
  Damage: Wrongful activity must have caused injury due to the failure to meet the required duty of care.

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• 35. 

  Multi-Sample Adapter

  • A.

    A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer holder to inhibit the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture

  • B.

    A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer holder to allow for the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture.

  • C.

    A device used with a needle, tubing and Vacutainer holder to control the blood levels input into multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture

  • D.

    A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer tube and needle to inhibit the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture

  Correct Answer

  
  B. A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer holder to allow for the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture.

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "A device used with a butterfly and Vacutainer holder to allow for the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood during a venipuncture." This answer accurately describes the purpose and function of a multi-sample adapter. It states that the device is used with a butterfly and Vacutainer holder, which are common tools used during venipuncture procedures. It also specifies that the adapter allows for the withdrawal of multiple tubes of blood, indicating its role in facilitating the collection of multiple samples without the need for repeated punctures.

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• 36. 

  Lipemic

  • A.

    After blood is coagulated and seperated in a centrifuge the serum/plasma portion is milky in appearance

  • B.

    After blood is spun and mixed in the centrifuge the serum/plasma is white is color and appearance

  • C.

    After blood is spun and seperated in a certrifuge the serum/plasma portion is milky in appearance

  • D.

    After blood is spun and seperated in a centrifuge making the substance white and milky in color

  Correct Answer

  
  C. After blood is spun and seperated in a certrifuge the serum/plasma portion is milky in appearance

  Explanation

  
  After blood is spun and separated in a centrifuge, the serum/plasma portion appears milky due to the presence of lipids. Lipemic refers to the condition where there is an excessive amount of lipids in the blood, causing the serum/plasma to have a cloudy or milky appearance. This can be caused by various factors such as high levels of triglycerides, certain medications, or medical conditions like diabetes or hypothyroidism.

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• 37. 

  Lavender Tubes contain

  • A.

    SST

  • B.

    EDTA

  • C.

    Sodium Citrate

  • D.

    Sodium Heparin

  Correct Answer

  
  B. EDTA

  Explanation

  
  Lavender Tubes contain EDTA, which stands for ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid. EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting by binding to calcium ions, which are necessary for the coagulation process. This type of tube is commonly used for hematology tests, such as complete blood count (CBC), as it preserves the blood cells and prevents clotting during transportation and analysis.

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• 38. 

  Latic Acid sample must be

  • A.

    Warmed

  • B.

    Frozen

  • C.

    Room temp

  • D.

    Chilled

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Chilled

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Chilled" because lactic acid is a liquid at room temperature and can be easily affected by heat. Chilling the sample helps to slow down any potential chemical reactions or degradation that may occur due to higher temperatures. Additionally, chilling the sample can also help to preserve its stability and integrity for longer periods of time.

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• 39. 

  Invasion of privacy

  • A.

    Release of medical records without the patient's knowledge and permission

  • B.

    Release of medical records with the patient's knowledge and consent

  • C.

    Release of medical records to sale for money with the patient's knowledge

  • D.

    Release of medical records to partner, sibling, spouce and employer with patient's consent but not permission

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Release of medical records without the patient's knowledge and permission

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Release of medical records without the patient's knowledge and permission." This option indicates a violation of privacy by releasing medical records without the patient's consent or awareness. It suggests that someone has accessed and shared the patient's medical information without their authorization, which is a breach of confidentiality and an invasion of privacy.

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• 40. 

  Informed Consent

  • A.

    Giving the patient adequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

  • B.

    Giving the patient inadequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

  • C.

    Giving the patient most of the adequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

  • D.

    Giving the patient some adequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

  Correct Answer

  
  A. Giving the patient adequate information concerning the method, risk and consequences to a specific procedure. Expected outcome and alternatives

  Explanation

  
  This answer is correct because informed consent involves providing the patient with sufficient information about the procedure, including the method, risks, and consequences. It also includes discussing the expected outcome and any alternatives to the procedure. This ensures that the patient has a clear understanding of the procedure and can make an informed decision about their healthcare.

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• 41. 

  Indirect Infection

  • A.

    An infection transmitted through body fluids to blood

  • B.

    An infection transmitted through blood to plasma

  • C.

    An infection transmitted from person to person

  • D.

    An infection transmitted through plasma to body fluids

  Correct Answer

  
  A. An infection transmitted through body fluids to blood

  Explanation

  
  Indirect infection refers to the transmission of an infection through body fluids to the blood. This means that the infection is not directly transmitted from person to person, but rather through the exchange of body fluids such as saliva, urine, or semen, which then enter the bloodstream and cause infection. This mode of transmission is commonly seen in diseases such as HIV/AIDS, where the virus can be present in body fluids and infect the blood when they come into contact with open wounds or mucous membranes.

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• 42. 

  If you were to pierce your index finger with a used needle, what is the correct response?

  • A.

    Yell at the patient for being so careless, wash area with non-abrasive soap for no less than 20 min. Bandage finger, tell your co-worker what a jerk your patient was. Complete exposure incident form.

  • B.

    Wash exposed area for 15 minimum, with anti-bacterial soap. Report exposure to the patient and demand they are tested for illness. Complete exposure incident form. Pray Pray Pray

  • C.

    Wash exposed area thoroughly with hot water, using antibacterial soap for 15 minutes. Report incident to your manager or supervisor ASAP. Complete the exposure incident form

  • D.

    Call your family members to plan your funeral. Report incident to your manager or supervisor, wash area with water and bleach. Complete the exposure form and call the press

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Wash exposed area thoroughly with hot water, using antibacterial soap for 15 minutes. Report incident to your manager or supervisor ASAP. Complete the exposure incident form

  Explanation

  
  The correct response to piercing your index finger with a used needle is to wash the exposed area thoroughly with hot water, using antibacterial soap for 15 minutes. After that, you should report the incident to your manager or supervisor as soon as possible and complete the exposure incident form. This is the appropriate course of action to prevent infection and ensure that the incident is properly documented and addressed.

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  1

  1

• 43. 

  If you draw a sample culture and sensitivity, what section of the lab would receive that?

  • A.

    Urinalysis

  • B.

    Hemodialysis

  • C.

    Metobolic

  • D.

    Microbiology

  Correct Answer

  
  D. Microbiology

  Explanation

  
  When a sample culture and sensitivity is drawn, it is sent to the microbiology section of the lab. This section is responsible for examining and identifying microorganisms in the sample, as well as determining their susceptibility to different antibiotics. Urinalysis, hemodialysis, and metabolic sections of the lab do not typically handle culture and sensitivity testing.

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• 44. 

  If someone is admitted to the emergency department unconscious, how do we identify them until they can be properly identified?

  • A.

    DOE chart that provide a hospital id number, medical record number and band and labels.

  • B.

    DOE information is given on a base by base cases, generally you yell or slap the patient to wake them up so they can tell you the requested information.

  • C.

    DOE log is kept in the breakroom, you would refer to that when something this rare happens.

  • D.

    DOE identification is not important, what is important is that you has a great draw and got all needed blood and then some.

  Correct Answer

  
  A. DOE chart that provide a hospital id number, medical record number and band and labels.

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is the DOE chart that provides a hospital id number, medical record number, and identification band and labels. This is the most reliable and efficient way to identify an unconscious patient in the emergency department. The chart contains essential information that can help medical staff provide appropriate care and treatment. It ensures accurate identification and prevents any confusion or errors in the patient's medical records and treatment.

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• 45. 

  If a person has a vasovagal episode, what is the most important thing the phlebotomist needs to do?

  • A.

    Call the nurse, lay patient on the left side on a cold floor

  • B.

    Lay the patient on their back, knees bent once that is done run for cover, hide and scream fire

  • C.

    Get the needle out of the arm, lay patient on their back with feet raised

  • D.

    Get the tourniquet off the arm, needle out of the arm, cotton ball. Then lay the patient on the floor with their feet proped

  Correct Answer

  
  C. Get the needle out of the arm, lay patient on their back with feet raised

  Explanation

  
  In the event of a vasovagal episode, the most important thing the phlebotomist needs to do is to remove the needle from the patient's arm and lay them on their back with their feet raised. This is because a vasovagal episode is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate, which can lead to fainting. By removing the needle and placing the patient in a supine position with their feet elevated, blood flow to the brain is improved, helping to prevent fainting and promote recovery.

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• 46. 

  If a patient is on an aspirin regimen, what would be most affected?

  • A.

    Clotting agent in tube to not work most of the time

  • B.

    Clotting time

  • C.

    Oncology results and time

  • D.

    DOE documentation time

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Clotting time

  Explanation

  
  If a patient is on an aspirin regimen, their clotting time would be most affected. Aspirin is a blood-thinning medication that inhibits the aggregation of platelets, which are responsible for clot formation. Therefore, the clotting time would be prolonged in patients taking aspirin regularly, as it takes longer for their blood to clot. This can have implications for surgery or any situation where clotting is necessary to prevent excessive bleeding.

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• 47. 

  If a patient declines medical treatment, what is the first thing you do?

  • A.

    Advise the patient that you will be fined if they do not allow you to complete the doctor request

  • B.

    Advise the patient that you understand their concern, and document the declined procedure and notify the nurse

  • C.

    Advise the patient that they are sick, and that they need to have medical attention.

  • D.

    Advise the patient that you are going to let them lose this opportunity allowing you provide outstanding service.

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Advise the patient that you understand their concern, and document the declined procedure and notify the nurse

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is to advise the patient that you understand their concern, and document the declined procedure and notify the nurse. This is the appropriate response because it respects the patient's autonomy and their right to make decisions about their own medical treatment. By acknowledging their concerns and documenting the declined procedure, it ensures that there is a record of the patient's decision and that the appropriate healthcare professionals are notified. This allows for proper communication and continuity of care for the patient.

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• 48. 

  If a patient asks you what tests their physician has ordered, do you tell them?

  • A.

    This is only on a need to know basis, and they do not need to know

  • B.

    This information is highly classified, they need to have authorized permission before you can advise them of the tests requested

  • C.

    This information is to be given to the patient upon request

  • D.

    This information is to be given to the patient upon request of the nurse

  Correct Answer

  
  C. This information is to be given to the patient upon request

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is that the information about the tests ordered by the physician should be given to the patient upon request. This implies that patients have the right to know about their own healthcare and the tests being conducted on them. It is important to provide patients with transparent and comprehensive information to ensure their understanding and involvement in their own care.

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• 49. 

  If a patient asks you for test results, what do you do?

  • A.

    Give them to the patient, after all, it is their information. Sharing is caring

  • B.

    Direct them to ask the physician, do not provide results

  • C.

    Advise them you will contact their family before you provide the results

  • D.

    Give them the results, but tell them you are not "medically qualified"; so this way they cannot sue you under the "good samaritin law".

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Direct them to ask the physician, do not provide results

  Explanation

  
  It is important to direct the patient to ask the physician for test results because as a non-medically qualified individual, it is not appropriate to provide medical information. The physician is the one who ordered the tests and is qualified to interpret the results and explain them to the patient. This ensures that the patient receives accurate and reliable information from a qualified professional.

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• 50. 

  Hypoglycemia

  • A.

    Abnormally low estrigin level

  • B.

    Abnormally low sugar level

  • C.

    Abnormally high testorgin level

  • D.

    Abnormally high surgar level

  Correct Answer

  
  B. Abnormally low sugar level

  Explanation

  
  The correct answer is "Abnormally low sugar level." Hypoglycemia refers to a condition where the blood sugar levels drop below normal. This can occur due to various factors such as excessive insulin production, certain medications, or underlying health conditions. When the sugar level in the blood is too low, it can lead to symptoms like dizziness, confusion, weakness, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. It is important to address hypoglycemia promptly to prevent complications and maintain proper blood sugar balance.

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